Làm online đề thi minh họa môn Tiếng Anh vào 10 Hà Nội năm 2025

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1. Đề thi minh họa môn Tiếng Anh vào 10 Hà Nội năm 2025

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT
THEO CHƯƠNG TRÌNH GDPT 2018
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1.
A. show
B. post
C. lock
D. note

Question 2.
A. facility
B. crowd
C. space
D. cycling

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3.
A. hotel
B. suburb
C. public
D. moment

Question 4.
A. arrival
B. emotion
C. mechanic
D. engineer

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. Our tour guide gave us a list of local tourist ______, including museums, parks, and historical sites.
A. attractions
B. buildings
C. situations
D. schedules

Question 6. She ______ with her friends at the festival when the fireworks started.
A. was danced
B. danced
C. was dancing
D. dancing

Question 7. Nam thinks going hiking in the mountains is ______ than swimming in a pool.
A. more tiring
B. so tiring
C. most tiring
D. as tiring

Question 8. If we ______ renewable energy sources, we ______ our carbon footprints.
A. used – reducing
B. will use – reduce
C. are using – reducing
D. use – will reduce

Question 9. Phuong is telling Amelia her good news.
Phuong: “I’ve just been recognized to be the best student of the month!”
Amelia: ______
A. Thanks for your advice.
B. No worries. Everything will be alright.
C. My pleasure.
D. How cool! Congratulations!

Question 10. Da Nang, ______ is famous for its international fireworks festival, attracts thousands of visitors every year.
A. where
B. that
C. what
D. which

Question 11. Chi was ______ when she saw the beautiful sunset for the first time.
A. kind
B. amazed
C. worthy
D. helpless

Question 12. Drinking ______ of fruit juice is a good way to get vitamins.
A. many
B. few
C. a lot
D. no

Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.

WHAT TO DO DURING DISASTERS
Stay (13) ______ your house and away from windows.

Don’t drive or walk into flood water.

Move to high ground far from (14) ______ sea.

Get under a desk or table.

(15) ______ to local news reports and leave if they tell you to leave.

Call the emergency services if you are in (16) ______.

Question 13.
A. over
B. into
C. inside
D. away

Question 14.
A. x (no article)
B. a
C. the
D. an

Question 15.
A. Watch
B. Listen
C. Read
D. Wait

Question 16.
A. dangerous
B. endangered
C. dangerously
D. danger

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 17 to 18.
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
We had an unforgettable holiday in Singapore last week. Things didn’t go on as smoothly as we had expected before. ______.

a. Upon our arrival at the safari park two hours later, we realized that it was closed for maintenance.
b. It all started when my parents decided to visit the safari park.
c. We were so excited about the trip, but the moment that we left the hotel, it started raining.

A. b – c – a
B. a – c – b
C. c – b – a
D. b – a – c

Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. Then we asked a local man who lived nearby how to get to the park.
B. First, this park is really a must-visit for all nature lovers.
C. We finally got back to the hotel with sadness and disappointment.
D. To begin with, we had a lot of fun exploring the different animal exhibits here.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
Living in the mountains can be very hard. First, there is (19) ______ to grow crops or raise livestock. (20) ______ houses is also difficult because the land is not flat. The air in the mountains is (21) ______. The higher we get, the thinner the air becomes. This means there is less oxygen, which makes breathing harder.

Despite these challenges, people around the world have lived and worked in mountainous areas for centuries. There are many health benefits of living in the mountains. Being on the mountaintops (22) ______ you to live far from pollution. The air you breathe is fresher. There are places where you cannot drive a car or a motorbike, (23) ______ you have to walk. Travelling up and down hills and mountains on foot helps keep (24) ______. Finally, mountain people are quite simple and friendly. They live a peaceful life.

Question 19.
A. enough not land
B. land not enough
C. not enough land
D. land enough not

Question 20.
A. Build
B. Building
C. Builds
D. Buildings

Question 21.
A. another problem
B. many problem
C. others problem
D. any problem

Question 22.
A. lets
B. allow
C. let
D. allows

Question 23.
A. because
B. although
C. so
D. since

Question 24.
A. you are active
B. active you
C. active you are
D. you active

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25.
“I’m busy with my work all day today”, his dad said.

A. His dad said he was busy with his work all day that day.

Question 26.
Let’s drink some warm water after eating spicy food.

A. What about we drink some warm water after eating spicy food?
B. How about to drink some warm water after eating spicy food?
C. Why don’t we drink some warm water after eating spicy food?
D. Why not drinking some warm water after we eating spicy food?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27.
Lucy and I/ different opinions/ but/ we/ still/ get/ each other.

A. Lucy and I have different opinions, but we still get along each other.
B. Lucy and I have different opinions, but we still get with each other.
C. Lucy and I have different opinions, but we still get well with each other.
D. Lucy and I have different opinions, but we still get on with each other.

Question 28.
Laura/ suggested/ go skiing/ the Alps/ Christmas.

A. Laura suggested going skiing in the Alps at Christmas.
B. Laura suggested we going skiing in the Alps in the Christmas.
C. Laura suggested we going skiing into the Alps at Christmas.
D. Laura suggested go skiing outside the Alps on the Christmas.

Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?
HARD HAT AREA

A. You don’t need to wear a hard hat in this area.
B. There is a hard hat in this area.
C. This area provides hard hats.
D. You must wear a hard hat in this area.

Question 30. What does the notice say?
“Keep your bus ticket. Transport officers may request to see it at any time.”

A. There may be ticket checks during your bus journey.
B. Transport officers request you to buy a bus ticket.
C. Transport officers have to keep your bus ticket.
D. You can get your bus ticket from the transport officers.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
British English and American English are two variations of the English language that share many similarities, but also some notable differences in pronunciation, vocabulary and grammar.

The pronunciation of American English is one of the biggest differences. One of the most noticeable differences is the pronunciation of R. The British tend to pronounce R in the middle and end of words very softly, but Americans like to stress it. Spelling is another difference. Americans often spell many verbs ending with a -r sound by using -ed as in burnt (BE) and burned (AE). In both of these cases, the -r is pronounced. British prefer to spell -ise with an S but American prefer to spell it as it is pronounced with a Z.

There are even differences in vocabulary. Americans use the word “pants” for “trousers” and “apartment” for “flat”.

Grammar is another area of difference. The British are more likely to use formal speech, such as “shall”, while Americans prefer the more informal version, “will”. You may hear the British say “needn’t”, but Americans would almost always use “don’t need to”. In spite of these differences, the vast majority of language points are the same in both variations.

Question 31. What is the main idea of the reading passage?

Question 31. What is the main idea of the reading passage?
A. British and American English are identical in all aspects.
B. British and American English have key differences but many similarities.
C. There are different ways to pronounce British and American English.
D. There are different variations of the English language around the world.

Question 32. The word notable in paragraph 1 is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
A. important
B. easy
C. unimportant
D. difficult

Question 33. What does the writer use to give more explanations to each point?
A. numbers
B. symbols
C. examples
D. quotes (other people’s words)

Question 34. Which example is NOT mentioned in the text?
A. pronunciation of R
B. fluency
C. spelling of -ed
D. apartment vs. flat

Question 35. What final comment does the author make about differences between American and British English?
A. There are no differences in vocabulary and grammar.
B. There is only a slight difference in pronunciation.
C. Most language points are the same.
D. Differences are more important than similarities.

Question 36. The word vast in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. large
B. unlimited
C. huge
D. small

Four phrases/sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37 to 40.
England’s traditions have been around for hundreds, even thousands of years. English cuisine is (37) ______ that English people are proud to keep alive.

Typical English cuisine has developed over many centuries, and people say that fish and chips is the most English dish of all. It is believed that fish and chips appeared in England in the 19th century. (38) ______. Since then, people have considered fish and chips to be England’s national dish, and it is now a common takeaway in the United Kingdom.

The basic ingredients of the dish are fried fish served with chips. (39) ______. Fish and chips is served hot as the main dish in England. Although there is oil and carbohydrates in fish and chips, it is healthier than other takeaway dishes.

Now there are fish and chip shops in many countries, and it is (40) ______ in other countries, too. Preserving and promoting fish and chips is the way English people keep themselves associated with the past.

A. becoming more and more popular
B. among the deep-rooted traditions
C. The earliest fish and chip shop opened in London during the 1860s.
D. People in different places may add peas, vinegar, lemon, or ketchup.

Question 37. ____
Question 38. ____
Question 39. ____
Question 40. ____

2. Đáp án tham khảo

| 1. C | 2. B | 3. A | 4. D | 5. A | 6. C | 7. A | 8. D | 9. D | 10. D |
| 11. B | 12. C | 13. C | 14. B | 15. B | 16. D | 17. A | 18. C | 19. C | 20. B |
| 21. A | 22. D | 23. C | 24. D | 25. A | 26. C | 27. D | 28. A | 29. D | 30. A |
| 31. B | 32. A | 33. C | 34. B | 35. C | 36. D | 37. B | 38. C | 39. D | 40. A |

3. Cấu Trúc Đề Thi Vào Lớp 10 Môn Tiếng Anh Hà Nội năm 2025

Theo đề minh họa của Sở GD&ĐT Hà Nội cho kỳ thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 năm 2025, cấu trúc đề thi môn Tiếng Anh dự kiến vẫn giữ nguyên định dạng của các năm trước, theo chương trình Giáo dục phổ thông 2018. Dưới đây là phân tích chi tiết:

I. Cấu Trúc Đề Thi
1. Tổng số câu hỏi: 40 câu
2. Hình thức thi: Trắc nghiệm khách quan (100%)
3. Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
4. Nội dung thi:
Ngữ âm (Phát âm & Trọng âm) (4 câu)

Ngữ pháp & Từ vựng (12 câu)

Chức năng giao tiếp (2 câu)

Điền từ vào đoạn văn (6 câu)

Tìm lỗi sai (3 câu)

Viết lại câu (5 câu)

Đọc hiểu (8 câu)

II. Phân Tích Chi Tiết Các Phần
1. Ngữ âm (4 câu)
2 câu về cách phát âm của nguyên âm hoặc phụ âm.

2 câu về trọng âm từ.

2. Ngữ pháp & Từ vựng (12 câu)
Các điểm ngữ pháp quan trọng:

Thì của động từ (hiện tại đơn, hiện tại hoàn thành, quá khứ đơn, tương lai đơn, câu bị động, câu điều kiện…).

Câu gián tiếp.

So sánh (so sánh hơn, so sánh nhất, so sánh ngang bằng…).

Từ loại (danh từ, động từ, tính từ, trạng từ…).

Giới từ và cụm động từ thông dụng.

3. Chức năng giao tiếp (2 câu)
Chọn câu trả lời phù hợp trong hội thoại hàng ngày.

4. Điền từ vào đoạn văn (6 câu)
Điền từ thích hợp vào chỗ trống trong một đoạn văn ngắn.

5. Tìm lỗi sai (3 câu)
Tìm lỗi sai trong câu (liên quan đến ngữ pháp, từ vựng, chính tả…).

6. Viết lại câu (5 câu)
Viết lại câu giữ nguyên nghĩa, thường gặp các dạng sau:

Câu bị động.

Câu điều kiện.

Câu tường thuật (gián tiếp).

So sánh.

Dùng từ gợi ý để viết lại câu.

7. Đọc hiểu (8 câu)
2 bài đọc ngắn (~150-200 từ).

4 câu hỏi trắc nghiệm mỗi bài (ý chính, chi tiết, suy luận, từ vựng…).

III. Tổng Kết & Định Hướng Ôn Tập
Ngữ pháp: Ôn chắc các chủ điểm quan trọng.

Từ vựng: Mở rộng vốn từ theo chủ đề phổ biến.

Kỹ năng đọc hiểu: Luyện đọc các đoạn văn ngắn, rèn kỹ năng tìm ý chính và đoán nghĩa từ mới.

Phát âm & trọng âm: Luyện nghe và phát âm các từ vựng quen thuộc.

Bên cạnh Đề thi Tiếng Anh vào 10 Hà Nội 2025 và Đề thi vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh toàn quốc 2025 các sĩ tử hãy cố gắng làm thêm các  Tài liệu ôn thi vào lớp 10 các môn khác để có kết quả tổng tốt nhất nhé!

Sau khi Làm online đề thi minh họa môn Tiếng Anh vào 10 Hà Nội năm 2025. Comment ngay điểm số tổng nhé!